Originally posted by SB Shock
He is authorized by Congress to use force to achieve those U.N. objectives. Now I know I'm full of Becker law jargon but essentially "power" and "authority" are slightly different. As you point out he did not need consent of Congress because he had the power to act on his own. However he acted based on the authorization which merely stated to enforce various council resolutions.
Originally posted by SB Shock
Originally posted by SB Shock
There is very little evidence he tried.
Originally posted by SB Shock
Originally posted by SB Shock
I also think we should assist in issues such as naval piracy and assisting vessels in distress.
However, I think that using the US military to directly involve itself in the affairs wihtin another nations borders is going to far unless we are at war. If you go down that road you become the world policeman.
Now I have no issue with indirect assistance such as selling arms and the like. In fact FDR did this sort of thing before WW2 by selling ships to Britain, reporting German subs when spotted, organizing volunteers to fight, etc.
Originally posted by SB Shock
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